Job Recruitment at Assam University .Assam University invited Applications in prescribed form are invited from Indian nationals for filling up the following Teaching & Non-Teaching positions job vacancy at Silchar & Diphu Campus with UGC pay scale in the University: More Detail Are Given Below:
Jiwaji University in Gwalior, announces result of BCA (Bachelor of Computer Applications) Part I (Back) examination, BCA V Semester examination & Bachelor of Pharmacy (B. Pharma) IV year examination.
The Vyavsaik Pariksha Mandal, Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh has declared the MP MET 2010 Result. The Result has been published on the main website. Read More…
Mumbai University has been Declared BSM 5th semester Result.The result is available on the official web site of Mumbai University.The Exam was held on May 2010. But result is earlier Declare.
The student can be check there result from the link http://results.mu.ac.in/choose_nob.php?exam_id=1251&exam_year=2010&exam_month=MAY
Hello Raeders !!!! This is a Solved Previous Year Question Paper for SSC (Staff Selection Commission) Data Entry Operator Recruitment Exam. It covers 25 Questions on Computer General Knowledge. We hope that this will help you prepare for the exam. Practicing the previous question papers is a must for the success in the Exams………
1. The banks use ……………. device to minimize conversion process.
(a) Keyboard
(b) MICR
(c) OCR
(d) Scanner
2. ……………… can’t be used for source of data automation.
(a) POS terminal
(b) OCR
(c) Keyboard
(d) UPC
3. Under which case will intranet be an effective networking tool?
(a) In a distributed decision-making environment
(b) Where heterogeneous applications are involved
(c) In a centralised organization
(d) In a decentralised organization
4. When an organization gives contract for development of software, it has to give data to the service provider. In Such cases, the ownership of data should be_________
(a) Transferred to the service provider
(b) With the client/organization that outsource services
(c) Shared by both parties
(d) Not transferred
5. A modem performs_________
(a) Modulation
(b) Demodulation
(c) Data compression
(d) All of these
6. Which of the following is NOT done by modem?
(a) Transmission Speed
(b) Data Accuracy
(b) Error detection and Correction
(d) Data Compression
7. A program coded in programming language is____________.
(a) Target code
(b) Source code
(c) Block
(d) None of these
8. “Platform” in computer world means___________.
(a) Computer hardware used
(b) Operating Systems used
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these
9. Which of these biometric tools use thermal sensors along with infrared rays for identification?
(a) Key stroke dynamics
(b) Iris Retinal scans
(c) Speech recognition
(d)Fingerprint scanning
10. What is incorrect about software?
(a) It can manipulate computer
(b) It has programs, instructions
(c) It can be touched
(d) It can be touched
11. Disadvantage of distributed database is.
(a) Unreliability
(b) Easy implementation
(c) Insecurity
(d) High communication cost
12. Which of the following transmission techniques let computer to alternatively send and receive data?
(a) Simplex
(b) Half duplex
(c) Full duplex
(d) Multiplexing
13. What is NOT a feature of networking?
(a) Reliability
(b) Greater storage space
(c) Connectivity
(d) All are features of networking
14. Taking back-up of a file against crash is a
(a) Preventive measure
(b) Curative measure
(c) Decisive measure
(d) None of these
15. A memory that is referred by its contents instead of physical address is called ________
(a) Associative memory
(b) Content addressable storage
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
16. Most dangerous risk in leaking of information is :
(a) Ready access to online terminals
(b) Online processing of data
(c) Ignorance about the existence of risk
(d) All of these
17. A camera is an
(a) Input device
(b) Can be either input or output
(c) Processing machine
(b) Output device
18. Using anti-virus software is
(a) Preventive measure
(b) Detective measure
(c) Corrective measure
(d) All the above
19. An online transaction is
(a) One that is done in real time
(b) Transaction done via internet
(c) One that is done via telephone
(d) None of these
20. A clerk in a bank has to access data n customer account. Logical access control for these users would be.
(a) Use of individual passwords
(b) Use of an Accounts Receivable Section password
(c) Use of individual passwords plus separate access passwords for customer data and product data
(d) Can’t say
21. To stop unauthorized access to the computer system we should
(a) Have a trustworthy system administrator
(b) Have a good passwords policy
(c) Have a sound encryption policy
(d) All of the above
22. Which cannot assure data accuracy in an application?
(a) Limit and reasonableness test
(b) Echo checking
(c) Control total
(d) None of these
23. Maximum storage space is available on
(a) CDs
(b) ROM
(c) Hard disks
(d) Floppies
24. Jon Von Neumann developed:
(a) First electronic chip flip flop
(b) Stored-program concept
(c) The first electronic computer
(d) None of these
25. Which of the following is single user computer with many features and good processing power?
(a) Minicomputer
(b) Workstation
(c) Macintosh
(d) None of these
Answers
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (b)16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (b)
LATEST.I HELP STUDY WISHES ALL THE BEST 4 UR EXAMS…………
BEST OF LUCK………………………………… ……
Today We are still adding Last year question paper , Previous Year Sample Question Papers of RESERVE BANK OF INDIA . These questions papers will give you an idea of the Paper Patterns that are given in the exams.
This blog post follows my earlier blog article on RBI Recruitment Notification, Eligibility & Forms and is intended to give you the pattern of RBI exam as well as study materials for preparation of the RBI “Group-B” officer’s exam: the Sample Papers & Books.
RBI exam pattern:
The 3-phase selection process for the “Group-B” RBI job consists of following phases:
Phase-I: Preliminary Test: Written Exam (Objective type)
Phase-II: Final Test Written Exam (Descriptive type)
Phase-III: Interview.
Phase-I test is only of screening in nature (for selecting candidates for Phase-II test) and therefore marks you score in Phase-I test is not counted for the final merit list. The final merit list is prepared based on the total marks you scored in Phase-II Written Test and the Interview.
Let us go into the detail of these three phases.
RBI Phase-I Exam Pattern:
The Phase-I test of RBI consists of Objective type questions from following four sections:
i) General Awareness.
ii) English Language.
iii) Quantitative Aptitude.
iv) Reasoning.
The exam is of 3 hours duration for total 200 marks. You need to qualify in each of these tests individually – the RBI cut-off marks for these tests have not been specified and would be decided based on the relative performance of the candidates.
Other than just above information, the RBI exam notification has not specified any more information, like number of questions in each section and the mark-distribution. But RBI exam pattern for “Group-B” officer’s exam is very similar to the Bank PO exams, with identical exam sections and hence you can make some guesses about how many questions may be asked from following PO exam pattern for Indian Overseas Bank (IOB):
IOB PO exam pattern: 225 Questions to be answered in 135 minutes with total 200 marks with following section-wise number of questions:
Test of Reasoning Ability 75
Test of Quantitative Aptitude 50
Test of General Awareness 50
Test of English Language 50.
Since you would have 180 minutes (3 hours) for the RBI exam, so may be you would have more number of questions.
RBI Phase-II Exam Pattern:
For those selected in the RBI Phase-I Exam, they would have to appear for Phase-II Exam, which consists of descriptive questions from following three papers:
Paper I – English.
Paper II – Economic and Social Issues.
Paper III – Finance and Management.
The syllabus for these three papers have been given in my previous blog post titled: RBI Exam Syllabus. Each of these papers is of 3 hours duration carrying 100 marks.
Following the RBI Phase-II test, if you are selected, you would have to appear for the final selection: the RBI Interview. Marks you score in the Phase-II & Interview combined would be used for preparation of the final merit list.
RBI Exam Sample papers:
After going through above RBI exam pattern, you would naturally want some free online sample papers for RBI exam preparation. I did some searching for you and could come out with following bank exam prep-materials.
If I were you, my first place to check for sample questions on bank management trainee/PO exam would have been Competition Master in the section “BANK RECRUITMENT EXAMS”, which has been publishing solved question papers of previous years banking exams as shown in the screenshot at left.
You would need to register (which is free) to view these sample question papers of bank exams.
Sample Papers for RBI Exam Phase-I:
You have four sections in the Phase-I test: General Awareness, English Language, Quantitative Aptitude & Reasoning.
You can find the sample papers for these objective tests in the Competition Master website in the section “BANK RECRUITMENT EXAMS”, menu option “Bank PO solved papers”, as shown below:
You would find two sample papers for each of the test of General Awareness and English Language and one paper for each of Quantitative Aptitude & Reasoning.
You can also find some more sample papers from following sources:
From India Study Channel: Bank PO Mock test paper
From All interview: RBI Grade-B Officers Recruitment Exam July 2004 Question Paper-1 & Paper-II
Sample Papers for RBI Exam Phase-II:
Here you have three papers: “English”, “Economic and Social Issues” & “Finance and Management”. You can find some sample questions again in the Competition Master in four menu option the section “BANK RECRUITMENT EXAMS”, as shown in the highlighted red box below:
Books for the RBI exam:
I searched for books for RBI Group-B Officers exam preparation and found with following results:
Ramesh RBI Grade B Officers Exam Guide: Price Rs. 320 Offer Price: Rs. 256 Savings: 20%
RBI Grade-B Officers Exam by Dr.Lal & Jain. Upkar Prakashan: Price Rs. 298
Also, since RBI Group-B Officers exam is similar to a bank PO exam, I would like to recommend following Bank PO books for preparation of the management trainee written test. They are available on most of the good bookstores. Also, these books can be bought on-line through Credit Card as well as through Cash-On-Delivery (i.e. you pay when you get the book). And they are offering good discounts of upto 20%.
Oswaal Chapter-Wise Solutions of BANK P.O. (10 Years Solved Papers)
Cover Price: Rs. 299 Price: Rs. 239/- You Save: Rs. 60 ( 20% )
Ramesh Bank P. O. Prev. Solved Papers by RPH Editorial Board
Cover Price: Rs. 150 Price: Rs. 120/- You Save: Rs. 30 ( 20% )
For further preparation:
Upkars State Bank Probationary Officers Examination by T. S. Jain
Cover Price: Rs. 390 Price: Rs. 351/- You Save: Rs. 39 (10% )
Galgotia State Bank Probationary Officers Guide by Ravi Chopra
Cover Price: Rs. 260 Price: Rs. 208/- You Save: Rs. 52 ( 20% )
Ramesh State Bank PO Exam Guide by RPH Editorial Board
Cover Price: Rs. 350 Price: Rs. 280/- You Save: Rs. 70 ( 20% ).
RBI Interview questions:
For RBI Interview, apart from other areas, questions about RBI as an organization are bound to be asked. So go through the About us page of the website, as well as the wiki.
RBI results website:
After you appear in each of these phases, you would naturally would like to see the result. Check them in the proper time in this RBI exam result website.
Hope with above Sample papers & books for the RBI exam, you would be able to appear in the exam confidently. I would look out for more RBI prep-materials on the net and would post the same as I find them. So visit me again!
Part I : General Awareness :
1. Article 17 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) equality before law.
(b) equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
(c) abolition of titles.
(d) abolition of untouchability.
2. Article 370 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) temporary provisions for Jammu & Kashmir.
(b) special provisions in respect of Nagaland.
(c) special provisions in respect of Manipur.
(d) provisions in respect of financial emergency.
3. How many permanent members are there in Security Council?
(a) Three
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) Four
4. The United Kingdom is a classic example of a/an
(a) aristocracy
(b) absolute monarchy
(c) constitutional monarchy
(d) polity.
5. Social Contract Theory was advocated by
(a) Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau.
(b) Plato, Aristotle and Hegel.
(c) Mill, Bentham and Plato.
(d) Locke, Mill and Hegel.
6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister.
(c) Members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(d) Members of the Lok Sabha.
7. Who is called the ‘Father of History’?
(a) Plutarch
(b) Herodotus
(c) Justin
(d) Pliny
8. The Vedas are known as
(a) Smriti.
(b) Sruti.
(c) Jnana.
(d) Siksha.
9. The members of Estimate Committee are
(a) elected from the Lok Sabha only.
(b) elected from the Rajya Sabha only.
(c) elected from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
(d) nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
10. Who is the chief advisor to the Governor?
(a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
(b) Chief Minister.
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
(d) President.
11. Foreign currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called
(a) Scarce currency.
(b) Soft currency.
(c) Gold currency.
(d) Hot currency.
12. Which of the following is a better measurement of Economic Development?
(a) GDP
(b) Disposable income
(c) NNP
(d) Per capita income
13. In India, disguised unemployment is generally observed in
(a) the agriculture sector.
(b) the factory sector.
(c) the service sector.
(d) All these sectors.
14. If the commodities manufactured in Surat are sold in Mumbai or Delhi then it is
(a) Territorial trade.
(b) Internal trade.
(c) International trade.
(d) Free trade.
15. The famous slogan “GARIBI HATAO” (Remove Poverty) was launched during the
(a) First Five-Year Plan (1951-56)
(b) Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66)
(c) Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-74)
(d) Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79)
16. Bank Rate refers to the interest rate at which
(a) Commercial banks receive deposits from the public.
(b) Central bank gives loans to Commercial banks.
(c) Government loans are floated.
(d) Commercial banks grant loans to their customers.
17. All the goods which are scare and limited in supply are called
(a) Luxury goods.
(b) Expensive goods.
(c) Capital goods.
(d) Economic goods.
18. The theory of monopolistic competition is developed by
(a) E.H.Chamberlin
(b) P.A.Samuelson
(c) J.Robinson
(d) A.Marshall
19. Smoke is formed due to
(a) solid dispersed in gas.
(b) solid dispersed in liquid.
(c) gas dispersed in solid.
(d) gas dispersed in gas.
20. Which of the following chemical is used in photography?
(a) Aluminum hydroxide
(b) Silver bromide
(c) Potassium nitrate
(d) Sodium chloride.
21. Gober gas (Biogas) mainly contains
(a) Methane.
(b) Ethane and butane.
(c) propane and butane.
(d) methane, ethane, propane and propylene.
22. Preparation of ‘Dalda or Vanaspati’ ghee from vegetable oil utilises the following process
(a) Hydrolysis
(b) Oxidation
(c) Hydrogenation
(d) Ozonoloysis
23. Which colour is the complementary colour of yellow?
(a) Blue
(b) Green
(c) Orange
(d) Red
24. During washing of cloths, we use indigo due to its
(a) better cleaning action.
(b) proper pigmental composition.
(c) high glorious nature.
(d) very low cost.
25. Of the following Indian satellites, which one is intended for long distance telecommunication and for transmitting TV programmes?
(a) INSAT-A
(b) Aryabhata
(c) Bhaskara
(d) Rohini
26. What is the full form of ‘AM’ regarding radio broadcasting?
(a) Amplitude Movement
(b) Anywhere Movement
(c) Amplitude Matching
(d) Amplitude Modulation.
27. Who is the author of Gandhi’s favorite Bhajan Vaishnava jana to tene kahiye?
(a) Purandar Das
(b) Shyamal Bhatt
(c) Narsi Mehta
(d) Sant Gyaneshwar
28. Which one of the following is not a mosquito borne disease?
(a) Dengu fever
(b) Filariasis
(c) Sleeping sickness
(d) Malaria
29. What is the principal ore of aluminium?
(a) Dolomite
(b) Copper
(c) Lignite
(d) Bauxite
30. Which country is the facilitator for peace talks between the LTTE and the Sri Lankan Government?
(a) The US
(b) Norway
(c) India
(d) The UK
31. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan in India is the
(a) Planning Commission
(b) National Development Council
(c) The Union Cabinet
(d) Finance Ministry
32. Ceteris Paribus is Latin for
(a) ” all other things variable ”
(b) “other things increasing”
(c) “other things being equal”
(d) “all other things decreasing”
33. Who has been conferred the Dada Saheb Phalke Award (Ratna) for the year 2007?
(a) Dev Anand
(b) Rekha
(c) Dilip Kumar
(d) Shabana Azmi
34. Purchasing Power Parity theory is related with
(a) Interest Rate.
(b) Bank Rate.
(c) Wage Rate.
(d) Exchange Rate.
35. India’s biggest enterprise today is
(a) the Indian Railways.
(b) the Indian Commercial Banking System.
(c) the India Power Sector.
(d) the India Telecommunication System.
36. The official agency responsible for estimating National Income in India is
(a) Indian Statistical Institute.
(b) Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Central Statistical Organisation.
(d) National Council for Applied Economics and Research.
37. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing currency (except one rupee coins and notes) in India?
(a) The Governor of India
(b) The Planning Commission
(c) The State Bank of India
(d) The Reserve Bank of India
38. In the budget figures of the Government of India the difference between total expenditure and total receipt is called.
(a) Fiscal deficit
(b) Budget deficit
(c) Revenue deficit
(d) Current deficit
39. Excise duty on a commodity is payable with reference to its
(a) production.
(b) production and sale.
(c) Production and transportation.
(d) Production, transportation and sale.
40. In the US, the President is elected by
(a) The Senate.
(b) Universal Adult Franchise.
(c) The House of Representatives.
(d) The Congress.
41. Fascism believes in
(a) Peaceful change
(b) Force
(c) Tolerance
(d) Basic Rights for the individual
42. Which is the most essential function of an entrepreneur?
(a) Supervision
(b) Management
(c) Marketing
(d) Risk bearing
43. Knowledge, technical skill, education ‘etc.’ in economics, are regarded as
(a) social-overhead capital.
(b) human capital.
(c) tangible physical capital.
(d) working capital.
44. What is the range of Agni III, the long-range ballistic missile, test-fired by India recently?
(a) 2,250 km
(b) 3,500 km
(c) 5,000 km
(d) 1,000 km
45. Nathu Laa, a place where India-China border trade has been resumed after 44 years, is located on the Indian border in
(a) Sikkim.
(b) Arunachal Pradesh.
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Jammu and Kashmir.
46. M. Damodaran is the
(a) Chairman, Unit Trust of India.
(b) Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Chairman, Securities and Exchange Board of India.
(d) Chairman, Life Insurance Corporation of India.
47. What is the name of the Light Combat Aircraft developed by India indigenously?
(a) BrahMos
(b) Chetak
(c) Astra
(d) Tejas
48. Who is the Prime Minister of Great Britain?
(a) Tony Blair
(b) Jack Straw
(c) Robin Cook
(d) Gordon Brown.
49. The 2010 World Cup Football Tournament will be held in
(a) France.
(b) China.
(c) Germany.
(d) South Africa.
50. Who is the present Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(a) Navin Chawla
(b) N.Gopalswamy
(c) T.S.krishnamoorty
(d) B.B.Tandon
51. The title of the book recently written by Jaswant Singh, former Minister of External Affair, is
(a) A call of Honour – In the Service of Emergent Inida
(b) Whither Secular India?
(c) Ayodhya and Aftermath
(d) Shining India and BJP.
52. What was the original name of “Nurjahan”?
(a) Jabunnisa
(b) Fatima Begum
(c) Mehrunnisa
(d) Jahanara
53. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Lord Dallhousie- Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Lord Minto- Indian Councils Act, 1909
(c) Lord Wellesley- Subsidiary Alliance
(d) Lord Curzon- Vernacular Press Act, 1878
54. The province of Bengal was partitioned into two parts in 1905 by
(a) Lord Lytton.
(b) Lord Ripon.
(c) Lord Dufferin.
(d) Lord Curzon.
55. The essential features of the Indus Valley Civilization was
(a) worship of forces of nature.
(b) organized city life.
(c) pastoral farming.
(d) caste society.
56. Name the capital of Pallavas.
(a) Kanchi.
(b) Vattapi.
(c) Trichnapalli.
(d) Mahabalipuram.
57. The Home Rule League was started by
(a) M.K.Gandhi
(b) B.G.Tilak
(c) Ranade
(d) K.T.Telang
58. The Simon Commission was boycotted by the Indians because
(a) it sought tocurb civil liberties.
(b) it proposed to partition India.
(c) it was an all-white commission Indian representation.
(d) it proposed measures for nationalism.
59. Storm of gases are visible in the chamber of the Sun during
(a) Cyclones
(b) Anti-cyclones
(c) Lunar-eclipse
(d) Solar eclipse.
60. The Indian Councils Act of 1990 is associated with
(a) The Montagu Decleration.
(b) The Montagu- Chelmsford Reforms.
(c) The Morley-Minto Reforms.
(d) The Rowlatt Act.
61. The age of tree can be determined more or less accurately by
(a) counting the number of branches.
(b) measuring the height ,of the tree.
(c) measuring the diameter of the trunk.
(d) counting the number of rings in the trunk.
62. Of all micro-organisms, the most adaptable and versatile are
(a) Viruses
(b) Bacteria
(c) Algae d) Fungi
63. What is an endoscope?
(a) It is an optical instrument used to see inside the alimentary canal
(b) it is device which is fitted on the chest of the patient to regularize the irregular heart beats
(c) It is an instrument used for examining ear disorders
(d) It is an instrument for recording electrical signals produced by the human muscles.
64. The disease in which the sugar level increase is known as
(a) Diabetes mellitus
(b) Diabetes insipidus
(c) Diabetes imperfectus
(d) Diabetes sugarensis
65. The President of India is elected by
(a) members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(b) members of both houses of Parliament of State Legislatures.
(c) members of both Houses of the State Legislative Assemblies.
(d) Elected members of both Houses of the Parliament and members of Legislative Assemblies.
66. The nitrogen present in the atmosphere is
(a) of no use to plants.
(b) injurious of plants.
(c) directly utilized by plants.
(d) utilized through micro-organisms.
67. Diamond and Graphite are
(a) allotropes
(b) isomorphous
(c) isomers
(d) isobars
68. Kayak is kind of
(a) tribal tool.
(b) boat.
(c) ship.
(d) weapon.
69. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) fats
(c) Proteins
(d) Vitamins.
70. Rotation of crops means
(a) growing of different crops in succession to maintain soil fertility.
(b) some crops are growing again and again.
(c) two or more crops are grown simultaneously to increase productivity.
(d) None of these.
71. Suez Canal connects
(a) Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean.
(b) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea.
(c) Lake Huron and Lake Erie.
(d) Lake Erie and Lake Ontario.
72. Which of the following ports has the largest hinterland?
(a) Kandla
(b) Kochi
(c) Mumbai
(d) Vishkhapatnam.
73. “Slash and Burn agriculture” is the name given to
(a) method of potato cultivation.
(b) process of deforestation.
(c) mixed framing.
(d) shifting cultivation.
74. The main reason for deforestation in Asia is
(a) excessive fuel wood collection.
(b) excessive soil erosion.
(c) floods.
(d) construction of roads.
75. Recharging of water table depends on
(a) amount of rainfall.
(b) relief of the area.
(c) vegetation of the area.
(d) amount of percolation.
Answers Part – I :
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a)
6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c)
16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (d)
26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (c)
36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (b)
41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (c)
46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (a)
51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (a)
56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (d)
61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (d)
66. (a) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (b)
71. (d) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (d) 75. (a)
The North-Eastern Hill University Has announced the Result of B.A. Final Year. Result are available on http://result.nehu.ac.in/. NEHU is also announced the Provisionally Selected Candidates List, you can also check your result of UG Results 2010.
for more detail about result visit the official web site of North-Eastern Hill University through this link http://www.nehu.ac.in/
The Gujarat Secondary and Higher Secondary Education Board Has been announced the GSEB SSC Supplementary Results 2010 on it’s official website.student can check there result form the Gujarat Education Board website.click here for result http://www.gseb.org/gseb/default.aspx.
Hindustan Copper Limited (HCL) invites invites application from qualified and experienced Indian Nationals in the following discipline.
General Manager (Mining) :
Number of Posts: 02 posts
Pay Scale : Rs. 51300-73000/-
Qualification : Degree in Mining or equivalent 1st class Mines Managers Certificate of Competency (Metal) Restricted/Unrestricted for Underground Mining under Metalliferrous Mines Regulations.
Minimum Post Qualification Experience (in Years): 23 years in a large mechanized Underground Metal mines out of which at least 5 years in a responsible position with sound knowledge of mines planning and execution.
Age Limit (Years) : 50
Number of Posts: 02 posts
Pay Scale : Rs. 43200-62000/-
Qualification : Degree in Mining or equivalent 1st class Mines Managers Certificate of Competency (Metal) Restricted/Unrestricted for Underground Mining under Metalliferrous Mines Regulations.
Minimum Post Qualification Experience (in Years): 20 years in a large mechanized Underground Metal Mines out of which at least 5 years in a responsible position with sound knowledge of mines planning and execution
Age Limit (Years) : 50
Chief Manager (Mining) :
Number of Posts: 02 posts
Pay Scale : Rs.36600-62000
Qualification : Degree in Mining or equivalent 1st class Mines Managers Certificate of Competency (Metal) Restricted/Unrestricted for Underground Mining under Metalliferrous Mines Regulations.
Minimum Post Qualification Experience (in Years):14 years in a large mechanized Underground Metal Mines out of which at least 3 years in a responsible position with sound knowledge of mines planning and execution
Age Limit (Years) : 45
Senior Manager (Mining) :
Number of Posts: 02 posts
Pay Scale : Rs.29100-54500/-
Qualification : Degree in Mining or equivalent 1st class Mines Managers Certificate of Competency (Metal) Restricted/Unrestricted for Underground Mining under Metalliferrous Mines Regulations.
Minimum Post Qualification Experience (in Years): 11 years in a large mechanized Underground Metal Mines out of which at least 3 years in a responsible position with sound knowledge of mines planning and execution
Age Limit (Years) : 40
Assistant General Manager (Geology)
Number of Posts: 01 Post
Pay Scale : Rs. 43200-66000/-
Qualification : PG Degree in Geology
Minimum Post Qualification Experience (in Years): 17 years in a large metal mining company out of which 5 years in a responsible position.
Age Limit (Years) : 45
Deputy General Manager (Mechanical) :
Number of Posts: 01 Post
Pay Scale : Rs. 43200-62000/-
Qualification : Degree in Mechanical Engineering or equivalent.
Minimum Post Qualification Experience (in Years): 20 years experience in Mechanical maintenance. Having knowledge of latest maintenance practice / technique and experience of working in ERP environment.
Age Limit (Years) : 50
Assistant General Manager (Mechanical) :
Number of Posts: 02 Posts
Pay Scale : Rs. 43200-66000/-
Qualification : Degree in Mechanical Engineering or equivalent.
Minimum Post Qualification Experience (in Years):17 years experience in Mechanical maintenance. Having knowledge of working in ERP environment.
Age Limit (Years) : 45
Deputy General Manager (Electrical) :
Number of Posts: 01 Post
Pay Scale : Rs. 43200-62000/-
Qulification: Degree in Electrical Engineering or equivalent.
Minimum Post Qualification Experience (in Years):20 years experience in maintenance of Electrical equipment like Transformers, Motors, Switch Gears. Similar industry experience shall be preferred.
Age Limit (Years) : 50
Assistant General Manager (Electrical) :
Number of Posts: 01 Post
Pay Scale : Rs. 43200-66000/-
Qulification: Degree in Electrical Engineering or equivalent.
Minimum Post Qualification Experience (in Years):17 years experience in maintenance of Electrical equipment like Transformers, Motors, Switch Gears. Similar industry experience shall be preferred.
Age Limit (Years) : 45
Chief Manager (Electrical) :
Number of Posts: 01 Post
Pay Scale : Rs.36600-62000/-
Qulification: Degree in Electrical Engineering or equivalent.
Minimum Post Qualification Experience (in Years):14 years experience in maintenance of Electrical equipment like Transformers, Motors, Switch Gears. Similar industry experience shall be preferred.
Age Limit (Years) : 45
General Manager (HR) :
Number of Posts: 01 Post
Pay Scale : Rs. 51300-73000/-
Qualification : Graduate with Post Graduate Degree / Diploma in Management with specialization in Personnel Management / Social work or equivalent. Degree in Law is desirable.
Minimum Post Qualification Experience (in Years):23 years of post qualification experience. Candidates from Pvt. sector must be presently heading HR function in a company having a turnover of more than 250 Cr and must have 23 years experience in the line.
Age Limit (Years) : 50
Assistant General Manager (HR) :
Number of Posts: 03 Posts
Pay Scale : Rs. 43200-66000/-
Qualification : Graduate with Post Graduate Degree / Diploma in Management with specialization in Personnel Management / Social work or equivalent. Degree in Law is desirable.
Minimum Post Qualification Experience (in Years):17 years of post qualification experience. Candidates from Pvt. sector must be presently heading HR function in a company having a turnover of more than 250 Cr and must have 17 years experience in the line.
Age Limit (Years) : 45
Manager (Materials and Contracts) :
Number of Posts: 02 Posts
Pay Scale : Rs. 24900-50500/-
Qualification: Degree in Arts/Science/Commerce or Engineering with Post Graduate degree / Diploma in Materials Management or MBA with specialization in Materials Management
Minimum Post Qualification Experience (in Years): 8 years of post qualification experience in procurement of spare parts and replacements, quality control of purchasing and ordering such parts, and the process involved in ordering, shipping, and warehousing and inventory control. Candidate should have sound knowledge of Contract Management. Candidates having exposure in Import / Export procedure shall be preferred.
Age Limit (Years) : 30
Application Fee : Demand Draft of Rs. 250/- drawn on any Scheduled Bank in favour of Hindustan Copper Limited and payable at Kolkata. SC/ST/PWD/Female candidates are exempted from fees.
How to Apply : The envelope containing the application in prescribed proforma along with enclosure superscribed ‘Application for the Post of ……. ‘ should be sent by post to Assistant General Manager (HR), Hindustan Copper Ltd, 1, Ashutosh Chowdhury Avenue, Tamra Bhavan, Kolkata – 700019 so as to reach latest by 27/08/2010.
Today Gujarat Technological University will be Release the result of GCAT MBA/MCA.The result will be available on official web site after 6:00 P.M. .GCET MBA/MCA Merit List will be declare shortly.You will be get result from here the official web site of link http://www.gtu.ac.in. for merit list visit http://gtu.ac.in/gcet.htm.
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