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Here we are still adding Solved Question for your preparation in Banks Examination. These questions papers will give you an idea of the Banks Question Paper Patterns that are given by Banks. There are some Numerical Ability Solved Paper, which helps u lot in Bank Probationary Officer & Clerical examination………..
The bank holds the PO exam every year. The exam is held in two stages. The first stage is a written test and the next stage is a personal interview.
The written test consists of two parts- objective test and subjective test. The latter is only for qualifying purpose. The marks of the descriptive test are not considered for merit ranking.
The objective test consists of four sections:
• Reasoning ability
• Quantitative aptitude
• General awareness
• English language
The descriptive paper has 5 mandatory questions. These questions are set to test the communication ability, writing skills and the socio-economic developments of the candidates. Candidates are required to score a minimum marks, as decided by the bank to qualify in the test.
Candidates are required to pass in both the tests individually. The cut-off for the exam is decided by the bank on the relative performance of all the candidates.
The number of questions in each of the test, the number of questions in each section, the minimum cut-off etc are not specified by the bank, but will be notified later. However an idea of thye same can be obtained from the PO exam of other banks like the IOB.
1. India test-fired Agni III on—
(A) May 15, 2008
(B) May 17, 2008
(C) May 20, 2008
(D) May 7, 2008
2. Which one of the following countries is not included in the elite club which India joined after its successful test firing of Agni III—
(A) Russia
(B) U.S.A.
(C) U.K.
(D) France
3. M. Natrajan is—
(A) Scientific Advisor to the Defence Minister
(B) Chief Controller and Programme Director of Agni Missile System
(C) Scientific Advisor to the Prime Minister
(D) None of the above
4. Currently which one of the following organizations is celebrating its golden jubilee (year) ?
(A) ISRO
(B) CBI
(C) DRDO
(D) NASSCOM
5. India and Malaysia held their joint naval exercise at—
(A) Andman island
(B) Nicobar island
(C) Lumut
(D) Kualalampur
6. SERB stands for—
(A) Social Enlightenment and Research Board
(B) Scientific And exampapers.info/category/engineering" title=’Read more about Engineering’>Engineering Research Board
(C) Scientists’ and Engineers’ Research Board
(D) Science and exampapers.info/category/engineering" title=’Read more about Engineering’>Engineering Research Board
7. CEP (Circular Error Probability) is associated with—
(A) Prithvi II
(B) Chandryan I
(C) Narco Analysis test conducted on Aarushis’ alleged murderer
(D) The finalization of Indo-US Nuclear deal
8. The country which recently announced to have its own version of Star Wars—
(A) France
(B) Japan
(C) China
(D) North Korea
9. The Indian state which, in May 2008, launched Food Security Scheme—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Jammu & Kashmir
10. The most coveted award at the 61st Cannes Film Festival was received by—
(A) ‘Hunger’
(B) Line of Passage
(C) ‘The Class’
(D) Three Monkeys
Answers
1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (D) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (C)
1. Which of the following statement (s) reflects India’s stand on new World Trade Organization’s proposal on the issue of the subsidy to agro products ?
(1) India would protect the interest of its poor farmers who can not bear the burden of the cost of the products if they have to sell them on cheaper rate.
(2) Indian industry needs more flexibility as compared to the industry in developed countries.
(3) WTO has set up a new committee under the chairmanship of Putin of Russia to look into the issue of subsidy and find out a solution to the problem acceptable to all the parties.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
2. Which of the following statement (s) is / are true about the 11th five year plan of India ?
(1) The highest priority is given to exports ,education and development of steel sector.
(2) The plan aims at achieving the growth at 10 % level by the end of the plan.
(3) The Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana is revived in such a way so that it can be achieve a growth nof 4 % for agriculture sector.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
3. As per the figures released recently the Stock markets in emerging economies made handsome returns last year (2007-08). Which of the following stock markets amongst the BRIC nations registered highest increased (97 %) compared to its performance in 2006-07 ?
(A) Cina
(B) Brazil
(C) Russia
(D) India
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
4. Bayana which was in news recently is a place in –
(A) Uttar Pradseh
(B) Madhya Pradseh
(C) Bihar
(D) Haryana
(E) Rajasthan
ANS (E)
5. Which of the following statement (s) is / are correct about the Indo-Russia Bilateral Defence Ties ?
(1) Both the countries have decided to produce a fifth generation fighter aircraft and a multi role cargo plane.
(2) India has agreed to launch Russian missiles from its base at Chandipur incase some other nation attacks on Russia
(3) India and Russia were able to sort out differences over the utilization of Rupee debt fund which is of Rs. 8000 Crore at present.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 3 only
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
6. India has recently decided to put a wire fence on the 76 km. long border in Dhudri district in Assam. The fence will separate India from –
(A) Nepal
(B) China
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Myanmar
(E) Pakistan
ANS (C)
7. As we all know the Govt. of India is very keen about providing banking service to the people in rural and remote areas . However , banks feel that the cost of providing services in these areas for financial inclusion is quite high if services are offered through the “traditional branch channel “. What is / are the other alternative cost effective channel (s) to fulfill this aim of the Govt. of India ?
(1) Putting biometric ATMs.
(2) Introduce mobile banking.
(3) Issue credit or debit cards
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
8. The Govt. of India recently issued a notification altering constituencies in 24 States and Union territories. This is done as per the provision of which of the following Acts?
(A) Delimitation Act
(B) Census Act
(C) Parliament Act
(D) State Reorganization Act
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
9. As we read very frequently in the newspaper fraudulent activities in financial world is still continuing despite various efforts made by various countries to prevent them. As an estimate by IMF, what is the probable amount derived from such illegal activities which is laundered through the world’s formal financial systems every year? About –
(A) US$ 500 billion
(B) US$ 800 billion
(C) US$ 1000 billion
(D) US$ 1250 billion
(E) US$ 1500 billion
ANS (D)
10. Indian Prime Minister during his visit the Arunachal Pradesh a few months back asserted that the State is India’s Land of Rising Sun. Which of the following countries did not like his statement and had raised some objection over his visit to Arunachal Pradesh which is very much a part of India?
(A) Myanmar
(B) China
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Bhutan
(E) Nepal
ANS (B)
11. Which of the following is the amount of insurance cover provided to the workers of the unorganized sector under Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana?
(A) Rs. 10,000/-
(B) Rs. 20,000/-
(C) Rs. 30,000/-
(D) Rs. 40,000/-
(E) Rs. 50,000/-
ANS (C)
12. Which of the following is NOT one of the highlights Economic Survey presented in the Lok Sabha for the year 2007-08?
(A) Economy has “moved to higher growth phase”
(B) A trend of acceleration in domestic investment and saving rate is recorded.
(C) Buoyant growth in Govt. revenue.
(D) Indian Economy at market rate of exchange crossed 1 trillion US$ in current fiscal.
(E) Net Foreign direct Investment increased by 350 % .
ANS (E)
13. Which of the following is / are correct about sub prime crisis which was in news recently?
(1) It has reduced the flow of capital coming of Indian Stock Markets.
(2) The sub prime crisis is the major financial crisis whose origin is in the Russia and Brazil. It has adversely affected the economy of Europe and USA.
(3) The crisis started when some people started trading with false Share certificates of major blue chip US companies in the stock markets.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2
(E) None of these
ANS ()
14. The Prime Minister Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) has a target to connect all habitations of which of the following levels with all weather roads by 2008-09?
(A) 1000+
(B) 2000+
(C) 3000+
(D) 4000+
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
15. As we all know the value of the Indian rupee has appreciated in the recent past . The value of the Rupee is direct dependent on which of the following?
(A) Availability of commodities in the market.
(B) VAT introduced by the Govt. on various commodities.
(C) Size of total Forex Reserve of India currently.
(D) Capital flow in the market during a given period of time.
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
16. Which of the following banks has taken over the Centurion Bank of Punjab?
(A) ICICI Bank
(B) IDBI Bank
(C) HDFC Bank
(D) AXIS Bank
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
17. As per provision made in Bharat Nirman programme the pace of creation of irrigation facilities is required to be raised from present level of 1.42 million hectare per year in such a way so that it can achieve the target level fixed for the same?
(A) 1.50 million hectares / year
(B) 1.75 million hectares / year
(C) 2.00 million hectares / year
(D) 2.25 million hectares / year
(E) 2.50 million hectares / year
ANS (D)
18. Inflation has become major area of concern in India these days. What measures do the Govt. pf India / RBI normally take to control the same?
(1) Fixation of Maximum Price of the Commodities
(2) System of Dual prices.
(3) Increased in supply of food grains.
(4) Control on credit and liquidity in market.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 2,3 & 4
(E) All 1,2,3 & 4
ANS (D)
19. How much edcation cess is being levied on all the taxes to support elementary education for the children of age group of 6-14 years under Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)?
(A) 0.50%
(B) 0.75%
(C) 1.00%
(D) 1.5O%
(E) 2.00%
ANS (E)
20. Which of the following is / are correct about various concessions given in the Union Budget for 2008-09?
(1) Five years tax holidays for setting up hospitals in Tier II & Tier III regions for providing health care in rural areas.
(2) Commodities tax transaction to be introduced.
(3) Banking cash transaction tax withdrawn.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 2 & 3
(E) All 1,2 & 3
ANS (E)
(Practice Questions for SBI, Corporation Bank, Allahabad Bank, Bank of Baroda Exam)
REASONING – MENTAL ABILITY – APTITUDE
1. ‘Captain’ is related to a ‘Team’ in the same way as ‘Director’ is related to
(1) Supervisor (2) Employee
(3) Organisation (4) Union
(5) Customer
2. Find the odd one out of the following options
(1) Aunt (2) Child
(3) Father (4) Niece
(5) Relation
3. Pointing to a photograph of Mahesh, Ram said. "The father of his sister is the husband of my wife’s mother". How is Ram related to Mahesh?
(1) Brother (2) Brother-in-law
(3) Father-in-law (4) Data not sufficient
(5) None of these
4. If ‘fork’ is called ‘plate’, ‘plate’ is called ‘knife’, ‘knife’ is called ‘jug’, ‘jug’ is called ‘glass’, ‘glass’ is called ‘cup’ and ‘cup’ is called ‘fork’, by what do we cut fruit?
(1) spoon (2) jug
(3) glass (4) saucer
(5) none of these
5. If ‘a’ is substituted by 26,’B’ by 25 and so on up to ‘Z’ which is substituted by 1, what will be the sum of the numbers substituted for the word ‘XRAY’?
(1) 33 (2) 40
(3) 37 (4) 73
(5) None of these
6. In a certain code COIMBATORE is written as DPJNCBUPSF. How is INDORE written in that code?
(1) JOENQF (2) JMCPQD
(3) JOEPSF (4) HMCNQD
(5) None of these
7. Geeta is elder to Seeta but not to Deepa. Gayatri is younger than Deepa. No one is elder to Fatima. Who is youngest of them all?
(1) Seeta (2) Geeta
(3) Gayatri (4) Data not sufficient
(5) None of these
8. Raman is sitting to the immediate left of Harry but not next to Kamal. Mahesh is sitting to the right of Kamal. If the four friends are sitting in a circle who is sitting to the immediate right of Harry?
(1) Mahesh (2) Kamal
(3) Raman (4) Harry
(5) Cannot be determined
9. How many three letter meaningful English words can be formed from the word NOTE beginning with ‘T’ and without repeating any letter?
(1) Three (2) One
(3) Two (4) None
(5) None of these
Directions (11-15): Answer question 11 to 15 based on the following sequence:
A $ B # 9 G 3D K « M ? C Q 2 X 7 P 5 U 8 I 4 Y ə J
11. How many elements in the above arrangement are both immediately preceded and immediately followed by a number?
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Five
(5) None of these
12. Which of the following will be the fifteenth element from the left end if all the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right, keeping the position of the other elements in arrangement un-changed?
(1) 5 (2) 4
(3) 7 (4) 8
(5) None of these
13. How many letters in the above arrangement are immediately followed by a symbol?
(1) Two (2) Five
(3) Four (4) Three
(5) None of these
14. Which of the following will be eighth to the left of the twelfth from the left end of the arrangement?
(1) # (2) 7
(3) U (4) 9
(5) None of these
15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) G$M (2) K9Q
(3) ?D7 (4) 2MU
(5) PCI
16. In a certain code language’ In ba pe’ means ‘he has won’,'le ki ba’ means ‘she has lost’ and ‘in se pe’ means ‘he always won’. Which word in that language means ‘he’?
(1) in (2) pe
(3) se (4) Data not sufficient
(5) None of these
17. X is Y’s brother. S is T’s mother and X’s aunt. How is T related to X?
(1) Sister (2) Cousin
(3) Aunt (4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
18. If the letters of the word OBSERVANT are interchanged, such that the first becomes ninth, second becomes eighth, and so on, and the position of the fifth letter remains unchanged then what will be the new arrangement of letters?
(1) TNAVERSBO (2) TNVARESBO
(3) NTAVERSBO (4) VANTRESBO
(5) None of these
19. If 1 is coded as Ś, 5 is coded as %, 6 is coded as «, 3 is coded as +, 7 is coded as # and 4 is coded as ? What will be the correct form of the number 435671?
(1) ? + % « # Ś (2) ? + % Ś # «
(3) ? + « % # Ś (4) Ś # « % + ?
(5) None of these
20. Which of the following have the same relationship as BREAD:DBARE?
(1) SWORN: NSOWR (2) FUNDS: FSDUN
(3) GLAZE : EGZAL (4) LOWER: RLEWO
(5) None of these
Directions (21-25): Read the following information and attempt the given questions:
Six executive Aman, Bindu, Deepa, Jitu, Kamal and Priyanka have to advertise four products i.e. soap, watches, computers and chocolates on 3 different channels, i.e. Go, Come and Fun either alone or in pairs. An executive can visit only one channel and advertise only one product. No more than two executives can advertise on a channel.
(i) Bindu and Jitu both visit the same channel but advertise different products.
(ii) Aman who visits ‘Go’ advertises neither soap nor computers.
(iii) Kamal does not advertise chocolates.
(iv) No girl advertises soap.
(v) The two executives who advertise chocolates visit Spice
(vi)
21. Who advertises watches?
(1) Deepa (2) Kamal
(3) Aman (4) Priyanka
(5) None of these
22. Which of the following Channel-product pairs in definitely incorrect?
(1) Go-watch (2) Come-computer
(3) Go-soap (4) Come-soap
(5) Come-watch
23. Which channel does Kamal visit?
(1) Go (2) Fun
(3) Come (4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
24. If Bipasha advertises computers which of the following must be true?
(1) Jitu advertises soap (2) Jitu advertises watches
(3) Kamal advertises computers (4) Kamal works for Fun
(5) None of these
25. What will Jitu advertise?
(1) Chocolates (2) Watches
(3) Computers or watches (4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
26. Swaroop and Simple want to attend a seminar together between 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. on Friday. Simple cannot leave till after her lunch break which begins at 1.30 p.m. Swaroop is free after her meeting which ends at noon. For how many hours can the two of them attend the seminar?
(1) 3 ½ hours (2) 2 ½ hours
(3) 4 ½ hours (4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
27. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ANSWER each of which has as many letters between them in the word as there are in the English language?
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Four (4) Three
(5) None of these
28. Find the odd one out
(1) 2 (2) 7
(3) 11 (4) 13
(5) 9
29. If all the letters in the word MERCIFUL are rearranged in alphabetical order and substituted by the alphabet preceding them in the English alphabet what will be the new arrangement of letters?
(1) BDHEKLQT (2) BDEHKLQT
(3) BDEHLKQT (4) BDEJMLQT
(5) None of these
30. Out of 38 families in a housing society 5 subscribe to Hindi news-papers alone, 12 subscribe to both Hindi and Marathi newspapers. Find the number of Maranthi news-paper subscribers.
(1) 9 (2) 21
(3) 17 (4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Directions (31-35): Below are given letters and their numeric codes. Below that are given some conditions to be followed while codifying the given letter groups in each question. Study them and find out the correct numeric coded form of the given letter group in each question. If none of the coded forms is correct, your answer will be (5) i.e. ‘None of these’.Letters M Q I N E Y U G R
Numeric Codes 2 5 3 7 1 8 4 6 9
Conditions:
(i) If the first and last letters are vowels both are to be coded as Ś.
(ii) If the second letter is a vowel and the third letter is a consonant a single code is to be used and both are to be coded jointly as %.
(iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel both are to be coded as?
31. ENIMY
(1) 1%28 (2) ?732?
(3) 17328 (4) ?7328
(5) None of these
32. GENIR
(1) ?173? (2) 6%39
(3) 6%79 (4) 61739
(5) None of these
33. QUERI
(1) 5%93 (2) ?413?
(3) ?4139 (4) ?419?
(5) None of these
34. EINUM
(1) 1%72 (2) 0%42
(3) 1374? (4) 1%43
(5) None of these
35. UNGRE
(1) Ś769 Ś (2) 4769 Ś
(3) 47691 (4) Ś7691
(5) None of these
Directions (36-40): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows.
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
Give answer (5) if both conclusions I or II follow.
36. Statements: Some pencils are lead. All lead are ink
Conclusions:
I. Some ink are pencils.
II. All ink are lead.
37. Statements: Some ovens are refrigerator. Some refrigerators are ACs.
Conclusions:
I. Some ACs are ovens.
II. No. AC is oven.
38. Statements: All planes are birds. All birds are clouds.
Conclusions:
I. Some planes are clouds.
II. Some clouds are birds.
39. Statements: Some sweets are salt. No salt in spice.
Conclusions:
I.. Some sweets are spice.
II. No spice is salt.
40. Statements: Some papers are plastics. All papers are clothes.
Conclusions:
I. Some plastics are clothes.
II. Some plastics are papers.
Directions (41-45): Each of the following questions below consists a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide if the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements and:
Give answer (1) if the data in statements I alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II is not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (4) if the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
41. How is ‘cricket’ written in a code language?
I. ‘Dinesh play cricket’ is written as ‘do si ha’.
II. ‘play cricket now’ is written as ‘ha si ma’.
42. Who is the oldest among L, M, N, O,P?
I. P is older than M and N but not O.
II. L is older than O.
43. When is Rahul’s birthday?
I. Rahul and Shivani are twins.
II. Rahul was born on the last day of February in a leap year.
44. What is the strength of the class?
I. Shekhar stood 28 ranks below the top ranker and Mahesh who stood 5 ranks below him stood last.
II. Jayesh was 9 ranks below Ramesh who stood 27th from the top.
45. How far does Shruti live from the school?
I. Shruti has to cycle 3 kms. To her friend Mina’s house which is 4 kms. From thee school.
II. Gitanjali lives exactly opposite the school and walks 2 kms. to reach Shruti’s house.
Directions (46-50): The following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below:
972 526 487 359 251
46. If the positions of the firs and second digits are interchanged which of the following will be third if they are arranged in ascending order?
(1) 359 (2) 972
(3) 526 (4) 487
(5) 251
47. If 2 is added to the sum of the digits of each of the above numbers how many will be multiples of 5?
(1) None (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
(5) None of these
48. If 1 is subtracted from the last digit of each of the above numbers the sum of the digits of how many of them are prime numbers?
(1) None (2) Two
(3) One (4) Three
(5) All five
49. If the digits in each of the above numbers are written in reverse order which will be the second highest number?
(1) 251 (2) 359
(3) 487 (4) 526
(5) 972
50. If the positions of the digits of each of the numbers are interchanged such that the first becomes second, second becomes third and third becomes firs, which, of the following will be the highest?
(1) 972 (2) 526
(3) 487 (4) 251
(5) 359
Answer Key for Mental Aptitude Reasoning
1. (3) 2. (5) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (2)
6. (3) 7. (4) 8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (1)
11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (1) 15. (5)
16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (5) 19. (1) 20. (5)
21. (3) 22. (4) 23. (1) 24. (2) 25. (3)
26. (1) 27. (2) 28. (5) 29. (2) 30. (5)
31. (3) 32. (2) 33. (4) 34. (5) 35. (1)
36. (1) 37. (3) 38. (5) 39. (2) 40. (5)
41. (4) 42. (5) 43. (2) 44. (1) 45. (3)
46. (1) 47. (4) 48. (3) 49. (3) 50. (5)
Sample Question Papers:
Almost exams like Bank PO, Clerical, CDS, NDA, B. Ed., ETT comprise of questions from Reasoning (also known as Mental Ability or Aptitude). Here we provide a set of fifty Solved Sample Questions. The first fourty Questions are from verbal reasoning and last ten from non-verbal reasoning.
1. In a certain code ROPE is written as $3%6 and RITE is written as $4#6. How is PORT written in that code?
(1) %4$#
(2) $3%#
(3) $64%
(4) %3$#
(5) None of these
2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word KNIGHT, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
3. Pointing to a photograph Nikita said ‘She is the only grad daughter of my grandmother’s daughter’. How is the girl in photograph related to Nikita?
(1) Sister
(2) Niece/ daughter
(3) Aunt
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) Pineapple
(2) Guava
(3) Grapes
(4) Papaya
(5) Pear
5. If the word STABLE all the consonants are replaced by the previous letter and all the vowels are replaced by the next letter which letter will be third from the left end?
(1) S
(2) B
(3) A
(4) K
(5) None of these
6. In a certain code HOUSE is written as FTVPI, how is CHAIR written in that code?
(1) DIBJS
(2) SBJID
(3) SHBGD
(4) SJBID
(5) None of these
7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) FH
(2) KM
(3) PR
(4) CE
(5) JM
8. If ‘ P Q’ means ‘P is wife of Q’, ‘P+Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’ and ‘P Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’ then in G H +R D, how is G related to D?
(1) Cannot be determined
(2) Mother
(3) Niece
(4) Aunt
(5) None of these
9. If the digits of the number 5726489 are arranged in ascending order, how many digits will remain at the same position?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) 17
(2) 19
(3) 23
(4) 29
(5) 27
11. How many meaningful words can be made from the letters AEHT, using each letter only once?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
12. If ‘’ means ‘x’, $ means ‘+’, # means ‘ ‘ and ‘©’ means ‘-‘ then what is the value of
360 # 24$ 56« 5© 48?
(1) 253
(2) 242
(3) 247
(4) 285
(5) None of these
13. If blue means pink, pink means green, green means yellow, yellow means red and red means white then what is the colour of turmeric?
(1) green
(2) yellow
(3) red
(4) pink
(5) None of these
14. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the second, the third, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word PASSIONATELY using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be formed your answer is X and if more than one word can be formed your answer is Y.
(1) A
(2) E
(3) L
(4) X
(5) Y
15. In a row of children facing north Manish is fourth to the left of Suresh who is tenth from the left end. Nisha is second to the right of Suresh and eighth from the right end of the row. Total how many children are there in the row?
(1) 19
(2) 20
(3) 21
(4) 18
(5) None of these
Directions (16-20): In these questions symbols ©, #, «, $ and @ are used with different meanings as follows:
‘A © B’ means ‘A is smaller than B’
‘A # B’ means ‘A is either smaller than or equal to B’
‘A « B’ means ‘A is greater than B’
‘A $ B’ means ‘A is either greater than or equal to B’
‘A @ B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor greater than B’
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/ are definitely true
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is true.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is true.
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II are true.
16. Statements: V#S, S©L, L©J
Conclusions: I. V © L
II. S © J
17. Statements: M#R, R©J, J#H
Conclusions: I. M #H
II. R © H
18. Statements: H$F, F@G, G«M
Conclusions: I. H «M
II. H «G
19. Statements: R©J, J «T,,T # L
Conclusions: I. R @ T
II. J @ l
20. Statements: W@T, T$K, K «F
Conclusions: I. W $ K
II. W @ K
Directions (21-25): In each question below there are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which of the answers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) is the correct answer and indicate it on the answer sheet.
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is follows.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is follows
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither I nor II is follows.
Give answer (5) if both I and II follow.
21. Statements:
Some pens are books.
All books are pencils.
All pencils are jars.
Conclusions:
I. All books are jars.
II. Some pens are pencils.
22. Statements:
Some bowls are spoons
Some spoons are forks
All forks are plates.
Conclusions:
I. Some bowls are forks.
II. Some spoons are plates.
23. Statements:
Some bottles are jars.
All jars are buckets.
All buckets are tanks.
Conclusions:
I. All jars are tanks.
II. Some buckets are tanks.
24. Statements:
Some phones are mobiles.
Some mobiles are computers.
Some computers are keys.
Conclusions:
I. Some phones are keys.
II. Some computes are phones.
25. Statements:
All papers are files.
Some files are folders.
All folders are bags.
Conclusions:
I. Some files are bags.
II. Some papers are folders.
Directions (26-30): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and
Give answer (1) if the data is Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (4) if the data in both the Statement I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (5) if the data in both the Statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
26. Lalita is in which direction with respect to Sangita?
I. Lalita is to the East of Prabha who is to the South of Sangita.
II. Vinita is to the North of Lalita who is to the East of Sangita.
27. What is the code for ‘Play’ in the code language?
I. In the code language ‘play and dance’ is written as ‘ka to pe’
II. In the code language enjoy the dance’ is written as ‘pe jo ra’.
28. How many children are there in the class?
I. Vandana’s rank in the class is five ranks below Nandini who is twenty fifth from the bottom.
II. Nandini’s rank is seventeenth from the top.
29. Who is tallest among Neeta, Sudha, Radha, Maya and Geeta?
I. Radha is shorter than Neeta and Sudha but not shorter than Maya and Geeta.
II. Neeta is not the tallest.
30. How many sons does Ramesh have?
I. F is sister of H who is son of Ramesh.
II. R is brother of H.
Directions (31-35): These questions are based on the following letter / number/ symbol arrangement . Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow:
5 D G E « 7 9 $ F 1 6 R % L I A J 3 B # 4 @ K P 8 U M 2
31. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) $9F
(2) R6%
(3) 8PU
(4) #B4
(5) 3BJ
32. If all the symbols are removed from the above arrangement which element will be third to the left of thirteenth from the left?
(1) L
(2) R
(3) 6
(4) I
(5) None of these
33. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement?
EDH 9 « 7 I$F ?
(1) 6RI
(2) %R6
(3) R16
(4) %6R
(5) None of these
34. Which element will be fifth to the right of ninth from the right end if all the numbers are removed from the above arrangement?
(1) K
(2) @
(3) P
(4) #
(5) None of these
35. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a consonant but not immediately preceded by a vowel?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
Directions (36-40): These questions are based on the basis of following information. Study it carefully and answer the questions.
Eight executives J, K, L, M, N, O, P, and Q are sitting around a circular table for a meeting. J is second to the right of P who is third to the right of K. M is second to the left of O who sits between P and J, L is not a neighbour of K or N.
36. Who is to the immediate left of L?
(1) Q
(2) O
(3) K
(4) N
(5) None of these
37. Who is to the immediate left of K?
(1) N
(2) J
(3) Q
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
38. Which of the following is the correct position of N?
(1) Second to the right of K
(2) To the immediate left of K
(3) To the immediate right of M
(4) To the immediate right of K
(5) None of these
39. Who is third to the right of P?
(1) L
(2) J
(3) Q
(4) N
(5) None of these
40. Which of the following groups of persons have the first person sitting between the other two?
(1) PJO
(2) OPJ
(3) OPM
(4) MPO
(5) None of these
Directions (41-50): In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Answers for Reasoning (Mental Aptitude) Solved Sample Question Paper:
1. (4), 2. (3), 3. (2), 4. (3), 5. (2), 6. (4), 7. (5), 8. (2), 9. (4), 10. (5), 11. (3), 12. (3), 13. (3), 14. (5), 15. (1), 16. (5), 17. (2), 18. (1), 19. (4), 20. (1), 21. (5), 22. (2), 23. (5), 24. (4), 25. (1), 26. (3), 27. (4), 28. (5), 29. (5), 30. (5), 31. (5), 32. (2), 33. (4), 34. (1), 35. (2), 36. (5), 37. (3), 38. (4), 39. (1), 40. (2), 41. (3), 42. (4), 43. (1), 44. (5), 45. (1), 46. (4), 47. (5), 48. (1), 49. (2), 50. (3)
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